A 34-year-old G4P3 woman presents to the clinic with her husband desiring contraception. She has a past medical history of endometriosis, for which sh

Subject
Surgery
System
Female Reproductive System & Breasts

Kathryn

Member
Jul 29, 2020
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Singapore
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A 34-year-old G4P3 woman presents to the clinic with her husband desiring contraception. She has a past medical history of endometriosis, for which she was prescribed oral contraceptive pills as a teenager. Her past surgical history includes an exploratory laparotomy with laser ablation and resection of an endometrioma at the age of 26 years as part of an infertility work-up. She subsequently delivered three healthy children with no obstetric complications. She denies any history of sexually transmitted disease and is sexually active with her husband only. She states that she and her husband do not desire any more children. Which of the following is the most effective contraceptive option and will therefore have the lowest failure rate for this couple?
(A) Bilateral tubal ligation
(B) Bilateral vasectomy
(C) Combination oral contraceptive pill
(D) Diaphragm
(E) Intrauterine device
(F) Male condom
(G) Progestin-only oral contraceptive pill
 
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