A 35-year-old man who works as an investment consultation in a brokerage firm comes to the physician because of daily headaches over the past 2 weeks. He reports that the headaches begin in the morning and last for the whole day. The pain feels like a squeezing tightness around his head and is particularly intense in the back of the neck. He does not drink alcohol or smoke, but he does drink many cups of coffee during the day. He admits that recently he has been under tremendous stress because of the volatility of the stock market and problems with his clients. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug trial
B. Sumatriptan trial
C. Psychiatric referral
D. Lumbar puncture
E. CT of the head
F. MRI of the head
A. Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug trial
B. Sumatriptan trial
C. Psychiatric referral
D. Lumbar puncture
E. CT of the head
F. MRI of the head