QBANK A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 4, comes to the physician 8 days after a cesarean delivery complaining of redness and pain at the leftmost aspect

[DianaZ]

A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 4, comes to the physician 8 days after a cesarean delivery complaining of redness and pain at the leftmost aspect of her incision. Her cesarean delivery was performed secondary to a non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She was feeling well after the operation until 4 days ago, when she developed pain and redness around her incision. Her temperature is 37C (98.6F), blood pressure is 118/78mmHg, pulse i 88/min, and respirations are 12/min. There is marked erythema and in duration around the incision. At the left margin of the incision there is a fluctuant mass. Which of the following is most appropriate next step in management?

A. Expectant management
B. Oral antibiotics only
C. Intravenous antibiotics only
D. Incision and drainage
E. Laparotomy