#february2020mccqe1
A 38-year-old woman presents with several months of decreased libido and a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight gain. She has not had her menstrual period for the past 3 months. Physical examination is unremarkable except that a small amount of white discharge is manually expressed from the nipples bilaterally. The serum prolactin level is 300 ng/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
(A) Bromocriptine
(B) Cortisol
(C) Methyldopa
(D) Metoclopramide
(E) Octreotide
A 38-year-old woman presents with several months of decreased libido and a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight gain. She has not had her menstrual period for the past 3 months. Physical examination is unremarkable except that a small amount of white discharge is manually expressed from the nipples bilaterally. The serum prolactin level is 300 ng/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
(A) Bromocriptine
(B) Cortisol
(C) Methyldopa
(D) Metoclopramide
(E) Octreotide
Last edited by a moderator: