#july2020mccqe1
A 42-year-old man with AIDS presents with a chief complaint of persistent watery, non- bloody diarrhea. He is not on any medications and denies recent travel or fever. On physical examination, his abdomen is slightly bloated, with mild tenderness to palpation. There is no occult blood in his stool. Stool samples for leukocytes, culture, ova, and parasites are all negative × 3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
(A) Abdominal CT
(B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) antigenemia
(C) Modified acid-fast stain of the stool
(D) PPD test
(E) Small bowel biopsy
A 42-year-old man with AIDS presents with a chief complaint of persistent watery, non- bloody diarrhea. He is not on any medications and denies recent travel or fever. On physical examination, his abdomen is slightly bloated, with mild tenderness to palpation. There is no occult blood in his stool. Stool samples for leukocytes, culture, ova, and parasites are all negative × 3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
(A) Abdominal CT
(B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) antigenemia
(C) Modified acid-fast stain of the stool
(D) PPD test
(E) Small bowel biopsy