A 60-year-old man presents with a very painful swollen right knee developing over the past two days. There is no history of trauma. His vital signs ar

Subject
Medicine
System
Rheumatology/Orthopedics & Sports

Kathryn

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Jul 29, 2020
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A 60-year-old man presents with a very painful swollen right knee developing over the past two days. There is no history of trauma. His vital signs are normal. He has a painful tender knee effusion, with a fever of 38.1°C. He drinks five to six cans of beer daily and smokes 10 cigarettes daily. He has hypertension and is on hydrochlorothiazide 25mg daily and metoprolol 100mg daily. His full blood count, electrolytes and urea are within normal limits. Joint aspiration shows clear fluid with negative birefringent crystals on microscopy. Which one of the following medications is the most appropriate immediate management?
(A) Allopurinol
(B) Colchicine
(C) Indomethacin
(D) Prednisolone
(E) Paracetamol
 
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