A 61-year-old woman presents with complaints of 2 months of low-grade fevers and malaise. She states that she has been having frequent right-sided hea

Subject
Medicine
System
Miscellaneous (Multisystem)

Kathryn

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Jul 29, 2020
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A 61-year-old woman presents with complaints of 2 months of low-grade fevers and malaise. She states that she has been having frequent right-sided headaches without any other associated neurologic symptoms. On physical examination, she has a temperature of 37.9 C (100.2 F), and her neurologic examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results reveal a white blood cell count of 11,200/mm3 and a hematocrit of 36%. Serum electrolytes are normal, and her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 86/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Carotid artery Doppler flow studies
(B) Ergotamine
(C) High-dose IV penicillin
(D) High-dose steroids
(E) Oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
 
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