QBANK A 65 year old man with a history of essential hypertension presents with bilateral, non-tender leg swelling for 2 weeks. His hypertension was diagnose

DianaZ

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A 65 year old man with a history of essential hypertension presents with bilateral, non-tender leg swelling for 2 weeks. His hypertension was diagnosed three weeks ago and he is currently taking only one anti-hypertensive. He has no signs or symptoms of congestive heart failure and no edema in other body parts. Which of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for his edema?

A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Enalapril
D. Metoprolol
E. Amlodipine